**NEEPCO Engineer Previous Papers** are here to download. Aspirants who have applied for NEEPCO Recruitment will be waiting for the updates of *NEEPCO Placement Papers*. There will be no use if you simply attempt the written test without any preparation. You must prepare for the exam by practising the various NEEPCO Trainee Engineer Model Papers from the link attached below. The direct link to download the **NEEPCO Old Question Papers** is available on recruitment.guru site.

## NEEPCO Engineer Previous Papers

North Eastern Electric Power Corporation Limited had been published this advertisement to fill the vacancies of Trainee Engineer, Trainee Personnel Officer, Manager, and other posts. The candidates who had applied for NEEPCO Recruitment 2016 will be searching for NEEPCO Engineer Previous Papers. Our suggestion to those candidates is to collect the NEEPCO Exam Previous papers attached below and allot some time for practising them. These **NEEPCO Trainee Engineer Solved Old Papers** are very helpful for the aspirants during the exam preparation. To get the good score in the written test candidates have to prepare well for the exam. We have updated the NEEPCO Engineer Previous Papers with Solutions to give proper guidance.

Aspirants can get All Government Jobs Previous Year Question Papers and latest updates from our site.

** Previous Year Question Papers for all Govt Jobs**

### NEEPCO Trainee Engineer Syllabus

Candidates who have applied for NEEPCO Recruitment 2016 will be waiting for the updates of NEEPCO Trainee Engineer Syllabus. The detailed syllabus for this Trainee Engineer, Trainee Personal Officer, Manager, etc. in various departments is given below which the candidates can go through and prepare for the examination. The subjects for the NEEPCO Syllabus is given below. Candidates can also check the NEEPCO Engineer Previous papers attached below.

- General Knowledge.
- Reasoning.
- Mathematics.
- English.

#### NEEPCO Limited Exam Pattern

Applicants who were applying for these NEEPCO jobs will be selected based on the Written test and Interview. The total marks alloted for the exam will vary for these posts. The Written test shall be given 85% weightage and interview 15% for the preparation of final merit list. The NEEPCO Exam Pattern is mentioned in detail below.

S.no. |
Name of the Exam |
Subject Name |
Total Marks |
Duration |

1. | Written Examination | General Knowledge | 100 | 90 Minutes |

General English | ||||

Reasoning | ||||

Mathematics |

### NEEPCO Engineer Previous Papers – Placement Papers

#### NEEPCO Engineer Previous Papers – Electrical Subject

#### NEEPCO Engineer Previous Papers – Civil Subject

1. If A, B, C are square matrices of the same order, (ABC) -l is equal to

C -l A -1 B -1

C -l B -1 A -1

A -1 B -1 C -l

A -1 C -l B -1

2. The maximum number of linearly independent column vectors of a matrix A is called the rank of A.

II. If A is an N x N square matrix, it will be nonsingular if rank A = n. With reference to the above statements, which of the following applies?

(a) Both the statements are false.

(b) Both the statements are true.

(c) I is true, but II is false.

(d) I is false, but II is true.

3. The dimensions for the flexural rigidity of a beam element in mass (M), length (L) and time (T) is given by

(a) MT -2

(b) ML 3T -2

(c) ML -lT -2

(d) ML -l T 2

4. Pick the incorrect statement from the following four statements:

(a) On the plane that carries maximum normal stress, the shear stress is zero.

(b) Principal planes are mutually orthogonal.

(c) On the plane that carries maximum shear stress, the normal stress is zero.

(d) The principal stress axes and principal strain axes coincide for an isotropic material.

5. The following two statements are made with reference to a simply supported under-reinforced RCC beam:

I. Failure takes place by the crushing of concrete before the steel has yielded.

II. The neutral axis moves up as the load is increased.

With reference to the above statements, which of the following applies?

(a) Both the statements are false. (c) I is true, but II is false.

(b) Both the statements are true. (d) I is false, but II is true.

6. A soil sample has a void ratio of 0.5, and its porosity will be close to

(a) 50%

(b) 66%

(c) 100%

(d) 33%

7. A borrow pit soil has a dry density of 17 kN/m 3. How many cubic meters of this soil will be required to construct an embankment of 100 m 3 volume with a dry density of 16 kN/m 3.

(a) 94 m 3

(b) 106 m 3

(c) 100 m 3

(d) 90 m 3

8. The group efficiency of a pile group

(a) will be always less than 100%.

(b) will be always greater than 100%

(c) may be less than 100% or more than 100%.

(d) will be more than 100% for pile groups in cohesionless soils and less than 100% for those in cohesive soils.

9. The two criteria for the determination of the allowable bearing capacity of a foundation are

(a) tensile failure and compression failure.

(b) tensile failure and settlement.

(c) bond failure and shear failure.

(d) shear failure and settlement.

10. If duty (D) is 1428 hectares/cumec and base period (B) is 120 days for an irrigated crop, then delta ( D ) in meters is given by

(a) 102.8 (b) 0.73

(c) 1.38 (d) 0.01

11. Cavitation is caused by

(a) high velocity

(b) low pressure

(c) high pressure

(d) high temperature

12. If the pump head is 15m, discharge is 0.464 m 3/s, and the motor speed is 1440 rpm at rated condition, the specific speed of the pump is about

(a) 4

(b) 26

(c) 38

(d) 1440

13. The BOD removal efficiency, in percentage, during primary treatment, under normal conditions is about

(a) 65%

(b) 85%

(c) 30%

(d) Zero

14. Critical factors for the activated sludge treatment process are

(a) maximum hourly flow rate.

(b) maximum and minimum flow rate.

(c) the maximum hourly flow rate and maximum daily organic load.

(d) the minimum hourly flow rate and minimum daily organic load.

15. Use of coagulants such as alum

(a) results in the reduction of pH of the treated water.

(b) results in the increase of pH of the treated water.

(c) results in no change in pH of the treated water.

(d) may cause an increase or decrease of pH of the treated water.

16. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine in water treatment

(a) is not dependent on pH value.

(b) is increase by increased pH value.

(c) remains constant at all pH values.

(d) is reduced by increased pH value.

17. The standard plate size in a plate bearing test for finding modulus of subgrade reaction (k) value is

(a) 100 cm diameter

(b) 50 cm diameter

(c) 75 cm diameter

(d) 25 cm diameter

18. Width of carriageway for a single lane is recommended to be

(a) 7.5 m

(b) 7.0 m

(c) 3.75 m

(d) 5.5 m

19. Stopping sight distance is the minimum distance available on a highway that is the

(a) distance of sufficient length to stop the vehicle without collision.

(b) distance visible to a driver during night driving.

(c) the height of the object above the road surface.

(d) a distance equal to the height of the driver’s eye above the road surface.

20. Bituminous materials are commonly used in highway construction because of their good

(a) tensile and compression properties.

(b) binding and waterproofing properties.

(c) shear strength and tensile properties.

(d) bond and tensile properties.

21. A deep cut of 1m has to be made in clay with unit weight 16 kN/m 3 and a cohesion of 25 kN/m 2. What will be the factor of safety if one has to have a slope angle of 30°? Stability number is given to be 0.178 (from Taylor’s chart) for a depth factor of 3.

(a) 0.80

(c) 1.25

(b) 1.1

(d) 1.0

22. In a drained triaxial compression test, a saturated specimen of a cohesionless sand fails under a deviatoric stress of 3 kgf/cm 2 when the cell pressure is 1 kgf/cm 2. The effective angle of shearing resistance of sand is about

(a) 37°

(b) 45°

(c) 53°

(d) 20°

36Two footings, one circular and the other square, are founded on the surface of a purely cohesionless soil. The diameter of the circular footing is same as that of the side of the square footing. The ratio of their ultimate bearing capacities is

(a) 3/4

(b) 4/3

(c) 1.0

(d) 1.3

37. To have zero active pressure intensity at the tip of a wall in cohesive soil, one should apply a uniform surcharge intensity of

(a) 2 c tan a

(b) 2 c cot a

(c) – 2 c tan a

(d) – 2 c tan a

38. Water flows at a depth of 0.1m with a velocity of 6 m/s in a rectangular channel. The alternate depth is

0.30 m

0.40 m

0.86 m

0.81 m

39. In an area of 200 hectares, the water table drops by 4 m. If the porosity is 0.35 and the specific retention is 0.15, change in volume of storage in the aquifer is.

(a) 160 m 3

(b) 1.6 x 106 m

(c) 8 x 106 m 3

(d) 1.6 x 103 m 3

40. A tube well having a capacity of 4 m 3/hour operates for 20 hours each day during the irrigation season. How much area can be commanded if the irrigation interval is 20 days and depth of irrigation is 7 cm?

(a) 1.71 x 10 4 m 2

(b) 1.14 x 10 4 m 2

(c) 22.9 x 10 4 m 2

(d) 2.29 x 10 4 m 2

41. The parameters in Horton’s infiltration equation [f(t) = f c + (f o – f c ) e -kt] are given as, f o = 7.62 cm/hour, f c = 1.34 cm/hour and k = 4.182/hour.

For assumed continuous ponding the cumulative infiltration at the end of 2 hours is

(a) 2.68 cm

(b) 1.50 cm

(c) 1.34 cm

(d) 4.18 cm

42. Water flows at a rate of 10 m 3/s in a rectangular channel 3 m wide. The critical depth of flow is

1.13 m

2m

1.45 m

1.04 m

43. A circular sewer 2m diameter has to carry a discharge of 2 m 3/s when flowing nearly full. What is the minimum required slope to initiate the flow? Assume Manning’s n = 0.015.

(a) 0.00023

(b) 0.000036

(c) 0.000091

(d) 0.000014

44. The following characteristics pertain to the sand filters used in the water industry.

Filtration rate is 1 to 4 m 3/(m 2 day).

The typical duration of operation in one run is 24 to 72 hours.

Operating cost is low.

Which of the above characteristics pertain to slow sand filters?(a) I, II and III

(a) I, II and III

(b) I and II

(c) II and III

(d) I and III

45 The ruling minimum radius of horizontal curve of a national highway in plain terrain for a ruling design speed of 100 km/hour with e = 0.07 and f = 0.15 is close to

(a) 250 m

(b) 360 m

(c) 36 m

(d) 300 m

46. Design rate of super elevation for horizontal highway curve of radius 450 m for a mixed traffic condition, having a speed of 125 km/hour is

(a) 1.0

(b) 0.05

(c) 0.07

(d) 0.1.54

#### NEEPCO Engineer Previous Solved Papers – Aptitude & Numerical

1. January 1, 2005, was Saturday. What day of the week lies on Jan. 1, 2006?

A.Wednesday

B.Tuesday

C.Saturday

D.Sunday

Answer: Option D

Explanation: The year 2005 is an ordinary year. So, it has 1 odd day.

1st day of the year 2005 was Saturday.

1st day of the year 2006 will be 1 day beyond Saturday.

Hence, it will be Sunday.

2. It was Monday on Jan 1, 2007. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2011?

A.Monday

B.Friday

C.Saturday

D.Wednesday

Answer: Option C

Explanation: On 31st December 2006 it was Sunday.

Number of odd days from the year 2007 to the year 2010 = (1 + 2 + 1 + 1) = 5 days.

On 31st December 2010, it was Friday.

Thus, on 1st Jan 2011 it is Saturday.

3. If in a village the population decreases by 20%, increases by 10% and increases by 10%, the new population is what percentage of the original population?

A. 96.8

B. 98.8

C. 100

D. none

Ans: A

4. A square garden has fourteen posts along each side at an equal interval. Find how many posts are there in all four sides:

A.56

B.52

C.44

D. 60

Ans: B

Ex:(B) Reqd no. of posts = 4 (at the corners) + 4 × 12 (in between on the sides)

= 4 + 48 = 52

5. The Average age of students of an adult school is 40 years. 120 new students whose average age is 32 years joined the school. As a result, the average age is decreased by 4 years. Find the number of students of the school after joining of the new students:

A.1200

B.120

C. 360

D. 240

Ans:D

Ex:Let the original no. of students be x A.T.S. 40x + 120 × 32 = (x + 120)36 ⇒ x = 120

∴ Reqd no. of students after joining the new students = x + 120 = 240

6. The sum of two numbers is 45 and their product is 500. The G.C.M. of the numbers is:

A.5

B. 9

C.10

D.15

Ans: A

Ex: Let the nos. be x, 45 – x A.T.S x(45 – x) = 500

x2 – 45x + 500 = 0 ⇒ x2 – 20x – 25x + 500 = 0

x(x– 20) – 25 (x – 20) = 0 ⇒ (x – 20) (x – 25) = 0

x = 25, 20. If one no. = 25 other no. = 45 – 25 = 20

G.C.M. of 25, 20 = 5

7. An alloy of zinc and copper contains the metals in the ratio 5 : 3. The quantity of zinc to be added to 16 kg of the alloy so that the ratio of the metal may be 3 : 1 is:

A.2 kg

B. 4 kg

C.3 kg

D.8 kg

Ans:D

8. A man on riding crosses a bridge in 5 minutes when riding is being done at 15 kmph. The length of the bridge is

A. 125 m

B. 250 m

C. 1250 m

D. 2500 m

Ans: C

9. Ravi runs at 15.6 kmph. How many metres does he run in 2 minutes?

A. 260. m

B. 312 m

C. 520 m

D. 1040 m

Ans: C

10. A person borrowed Rs. 500 at the rate of 5% per annum S.I. What amount will he pay to clear the debt after 4 years?

A. Rs. 200

B. Rs. 550

C. Rs. 600

D. Rs. 700

Ans: C

11. Vikas can cover a distance in 1hr 24min by covering 2/3 of the distance at 4 kmph and the rest at 5kmph.the total distance is?

A.5 km

B.6 km

C.4 km

D.8 km

Ans: B

EX: Let total distance be S total time=1hr24minA to T :: speed=4kmphdiistance=2/3ST to S :: speed=5kmdistance=1-2/3S=1/3S21/15 hr=2/3 S/4 + 1/3s /584=14/3S*3S=84*3/14*3= 6km

12. The average ages of three persons are 27 years. Their ages are in the proportion of 1:3:5.What is theage in years of the youngest one among them

A.10

B.12

C.11

D.9

Ans: D

Ex: Let the age of three persons be x, 3x and 5x — > 9x/3 = 27 — > x = 9

13. It being given that √ 15 = 3.88, the best approximation to √5/3 is

A.0.43

B.1.89

C.1.29

D.1.63

Ans: C

EX: x = √5/3 = √5*3/3*3 = √15 /√ 9 = √15/3 = 3.88/3 = 1.29

14. Of the two-digit numbers (those from 11 to 95, both inclusive) how many have a Second digit greater than the first digit?

A.37

B.38

C.36

D.35

Ans: C

Ex:12 to 19 — > 8

23 to 29 — > 7

34 to 39 — > 6

45 to 49 — > 5

56 to 59 — > 4

67 to 69 — > 3

78 to 79 — > 2

89 — > 1

15. In a boat, 25 persons were sitting. Their average weight increased one kilogram when One mango and a new man comes in. The weight of the new man is 70kgs. Find the Weight of the man who is going.

A.50 kgs

B.75 kgs

C.45 kgs

D.30 kgs

Ans: C

Ex: Weight increased per person is 1 kg. Total increase in weight = 25 kgs Weight of new man is 70 kgs,(Which means his weight is 25 kgs heavier)

The weight of the old man was 70 – 25 = 45 kgs

16. There are 200 questions on a 3 hr examination. Among these questions are 50 Mathematics problems. It is suggested that twice as much time be spent on each maths problem as for each other question. How many minutes should be spent on Mathematics problems

A.36

B.72

C.60

D.100

Ans: B

17. The value of (0.625 * 0.0729 * 28.9)/(0.0017 * 0.025 * 8.1) is

A.3825

B.3.825

C.38.25

D.382.5

Ans: A

Ex: The sum of decimal places in numerator and denominator being the same, decimal point can be removed

(625*729*289) / (17*25*81) = 3825

18. The size of a wooden block is 5 * 10 * 20 cm3. How many whole such blocks you will take to construct a solid wooden cube of minimum size?

A.6

B.8

C.12

D.16

Ans:B

Ex: Size of each cube = 5 cm So number of blocks = (5 * 10 * 20)/(5*5*5) = 8

19. Find the odd man out – 1050, 510, 242, 106, 46, 16, 3

A.510

B.242

C.106

D.46

Ans:C

Ex:

2nd term = (Ist term – 30) / 2 = (1050-30)/2 = 510

3rd term = (2nd term – 26) / 2 = (510-26)/2 = 242

4th term = (3rd term – 22) / 2 = (242-22)/2 = 110

So 106 is the answer.

20. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals 2,4,6,8,10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes how many times they toll together.

A.4

B.10

C.15

D.16

Ans: D

Ex: L.C.M. of 2,4,6,8,10,12 = 120

#### NEEPCO Engineer Previous Papers – Reasoning

1. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED is coded as 7, what will be coded for GOVERMENT?

A.6

B.8

C.9

D.10

Ans: C

Ex: Code for the given word = (number of letter in the word) – 1.

So, the code for GOVERNMENT= 10 – 1 = 9

2. In a certain code language

MALLONPIML means BLUE LIGHT

MALLONTIFL means BLUEBERRY

ARPANTIFL means RASPBERRY

Which word could mean LIGHTHOUSE?

A.TIFLMALLON

B.PIMLARPAN

C.MALLONARPAN

D.PIMLDOKEN

Ans: D

Ex: MALLON means BLUE

PIML means LIGHT

TIFL means berry and ARPAN means RASP in RASPBERRY. The word PIML, which means LIGHT, is required for the word LIGHTHOUSE. Hence, choice D the only possible answer.

3. Sanjana’s brother-in-law is the son of Ramya. How is Sanjana’s husband related to Ramya’s husband if Sanjana had no siblings?

A.nephew

B.son

C.son-in-law

D.father-in law

Ans: B

Ex: Sanjana’s brother-in-law is the son of Ramya means Ramya is Sanjana’s mother-in-law.

Sanjana’s husband is Ramya’s son i.e. Sanjana’s husband is Ramya’s husband’s son.

4. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?

A.Brother

B.Sister

C.Nephew

D.Cannot be determined

Ans: D

EX: If D is Male, the answer is Nephew.

If D is Female, the answer is Niece.

As the sex of D is not known, hence, the relation between D and A cannot be determined.

5. Statement: There is an unprecedented increase in migration of villagers to urban areas as repeated crop failure has put them into precarious financial situation.

Courses of Action:

I. The villagers should be provided with alternate source of income in their villages which will make them stay put.

II. The migrated villagers should be provided with jobs in the urban areas to help them survive.

A.Only I follows

B.Only II follows

C.Either I or II follows

D.Neither I nor II follows

E.Both I and II follows

Ans: A

Ex: Clearly, increased migration would add to the burden on city’s infrastructure. So, attempts should be made to make the villagers feel comfortable in the villages itself. So, only course I follows.

6. Statement: There has been a significant drop in the water level of all the lakes supplying water to the city.

Courses of Action:

I. The water supply authority should impose a partial cut in supply to tackle the situation.

II. The government should appeal to all the residents through mass media for minimal use of water.

A. Only I follows

B. Only II follows

C. Either I or II follows

D. Neither I nor II follows

E. Both I and II follow

Ans: E

Ex: The situation can be tackled by periodic cuts in supply, and urging people to conserve water. So both the courses follow.

7. Find the next number of the series.

563, 647, 479, 815,…?

A.672

B.386

C.279

D.143

Ans: D

Ex:In the sequence is +84 -168 +336…. i.e. +84, -(84 * 2), +(84 * 4)…

Therefore, 815 – (84 * 8) = 143

8. After walking 6 km, I turned to the right and then walked 2 km. After then I turned to the left and walked 10 km. In the end, I was moving towards the North. From which direction did I start my journey?

A.North

B.South

C.East

D.West

Ans: B

Ex: The journey was started from the South.

9. Choose the correct antonym from the given four alternatives.

PROFANE

A.Pious

B.Kitten

C.Energy

D.Wild

Ans: A

10. AUDACITY

A.Quivering

B.Patricide

C.Bravado

D.Cowardice

Ans: D

11. In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

VACILLATE

A.Amplify

B.Stimulate

C.Cheat

D.Waver

Ans: D

12. DIALECTIC

A.Argumentation

B.Instructive

C.Constructive

D.Destructive

Ans: A

13. Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct.

Every time I go in a lift to my sixth-floor apartment, I remember the calm and serenity of my ancestral home in the village.

A.Move in a lift

B.Ascend in a lift

C.Take a lift

D.No improvement

Ans: C

14. The moment the manager came to know the fraudulent action of his assistant, he order immediately dismissed him.

A.Immediately ordered his dismissed

B.Ordered his immediate dismissal

C.Immediately order dismissal of his

D.Ordered for immediately dismissal of him

E.No correction required

Ans: B

15. Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom.

To hit the nail right on the head

A.To do the right thing

B.To destroy one’s reputation

C.To announce one’s fixed views

D.To teach someone a lesson

E.None of these

Ans: A

16. At one point, it looked as if an area of agreement would …… specially over the issue of productivity-linked wages.

A.Develop

B.Come out

C.Emerge

D.Grow

Ans: C

#### NEEPCO Engineer Previous Papers – Aptitude & Numerical

1. January 1, 2005 was Saturday. What day of the week lies on Jan. 1, 2006?

A.Wednesday

B.Tuesday

C.Saturday

D.Sunday

Answer: Option D

Explanation: The year 2005 is an ordinary year. So, it has 1 odd day.

1st day of the year 2005 was Saturday.

1st day of the year 2006 will be 1 day beyond Saturday.

Hence, it will be Sunday.

2. It was Monday on Jan 1, 2007. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2011?

A.Monday

B.Friday

C.Saturday

D.Wednesday

Answer: Option C

Explanation: On 31st December 2006 it was Sunday.

Number of odd days from the year 2007 to the year 2010 = (1 + 2 + 1 + 1) = 5 days.

On 31st December 2010, it was Friday.

Thus, on 1st Jan 2011 it is Saturday.

3. If in a village the population decreases by 20%, increases by 10% and increases by 10%, the new population is what percentage of the original population?

A. 96.8

B. 98.8

C. 100

D. none

Ans: A

4. A square garden has fourteen posts along each side at equal interval. Find how many posts are there in all four sides:

A.56

B.52

C.44

D. 60

Ans: B

Ex:(B) Reqd no. of posts = 4 (at the corners) + 4 × 12 (in between on the sides)

= 4 + 48 = 52

5. The Average age of students of an adult school is 40 years. 120 new students whose average age is 32 years joined the school. As a result, the average age is decreased by 4 years. Find the number of students of the school after joining of the new students:

A.1200

B.120

C. 360

D. 240

Ans: D

Ex: Let the original no. of students be x A.T.S. 40x + 120 × 32 = (x + 120)36 ⇒ x = 120

∴ Reqd no. of students after joining the new students

= x + 120 = 240

6. The sum of two numbers is 45 and their product is 500. The G.C.M. of the numbers is:

A.5

B. 9

C. 10

D.15

Ans: A

Ex: Let the nos. be x, 45 – x A.T.S x(45 – x) = 500

x2 – 45x + 500 = 0 ⇒ x2 – 20x – 25x + 500 = 0

x(x– 20) – 25 (x – 20) = 0 ⇒ (x – 20) (x – 25) = 0

x = 25, 20. If one no. = 25 other no. = 45 – 25 = 20

G.C.M. of 25, 20 = 5

7. An alloy of zinc and copper contains the metals in the ratio 5 : 3. The quantity of zinc to be added to 16 kg of the alloy so that the ratio of the metal may be 3 : 1 is:

A.2 kg

B. 4 kg

C.3 kg

D.8 kg

Ans: D

8. A man on riding crosses a bridge in 5 minutes when riding is being done at 15 kmph. The length of the bridge is:

A. 125 m

B. 250 m

C. 1250 m

D. 2500 m

Ans: C

9. Ravi runs at 15.6 kmph. How many metres does he run in 2 minutes?

A. 260 m

B. 312 m

C. 520 m

D. 1040 m

Ans: C

10. A person borrowed Rs. 500 at the rate of 5% per annum S.I. What amount will he pay to clear the debt after 4 years ?

A. Rs. 200

B. Rs. 550

C. Rs. 600

D. Rs. 700

Ans: C

11. Vikas can cover a distance in 1hr 24min by covering 2/3 of the distance at 4 kmph and the rest at 5kmph.the total distance is?

A.5 km

B.6 km

C.4 km

D.8 km

Ans: B

EX: Let total distance be S total time=1hr24minA to T :: speed=4kmphdiistance=2/3ST to S :: speed=5kmdistance=1-2/3S=1/3S21/15 hr=2/3 S/4 + 1/3s /584=14/3S*3S=84*3/14*3= 6km

12. The average ages of three persons are 27 years. Their ages are in the proportion of 1:3:5.What is the age in years of the youngest one among them

A.10

B.12

C.11

D.9

Ans: D

Ex: Let the age of three persons be x, 3x and 5x — > 9x/3 = 27 — > x = 9

13. It being given that √ 15 = 3.88, the best approximation to √5/3 is

A.0.43

B.1.89

C.1.29

D.1.63

Ans: C

EX: x = √5/3 = √5*3/3*3 = √15 /√ 9 = √15/3 = 3.88/3 = 1.29

14. Of the two-digit numbers (those from 11 to 95, both inclusive) how many have a Second digit greater than the first digit?

A.37

B.38

C.36

D.35

Ans: C

Ex:12 to 19 — > 8

23 to 29 — > 7

34 to 39 — > 6

45 to 49 — > 5

56 to 59 — > 4

67 to 69 — > 3

78 to 79 — > 2

89 — > 1

15. The value of (0.625 * 0.0729 * 28.9)/(0.0017 * 0.025 * 8.1) is

A.3825

B.3.825

C.38.25

D.382.5

Ans: A

Ex: The sum of decimal places in numerator and denominator being the same, decimal point can be removed

(625*729*289) / (17*25*81) = 3825

16. The size of a wooden block is 5 * 10 * 20 cm3. How many whole such blocks you will take to construct a solid wooden cube of minimum size?

A.6

B.8

C.12

D.16

Ans: B

Ex: Size of each cube = 5 cm So number of blocks = (5 * 10 * 20)/(5*5*5) = 8

17. Find the odd man out – 1050, 510, 242, 106, 46, 16, 3

A.510

B.242

C.106

D.46

Ans: C

Ex:

2nd term = (Ist term – 30) / 2 = (1050-30)/2 = 510

3rd term = (2nd term – 26) / 2 = (510-26)/2 = 242

4th term = (3rd term – 22) / 2 = (242-22)/2 = 110

So 106 is the answer.

18. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals 2,4,6,8,10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes how many times they toll together.

A.4

B.10

C.15

D.16

Ans:D

Ex: L.C.M. of 2,4,6,8,10,12 = 120

### Direct Link to Download NEEPCO Old Question Papers

Here is the direct link to download NEEPCO Engineer Previous Papers pdf.

http://neepco.gov.in/neepco/

Roop Tanwar says

Dear,

Sir / Madam ,

Can you please tell me the detailed overall syllabus for trainee engineer civil.

As soon as possible because i am having my exam on sunday 26/06/2016.